1 definition by SlayerOfBigots

Top Definition
I’m not sure why this topic seems so controversial. In fact it probably really isn’t, it’s only the bitter, self righteous, intolerant Greeks that insist on living in the past. What do they insist on? Well, they insist that the Former Yugoslav Republic of Macedonia (FYROM) is in reality Greek. The definition of what is “Greek” is entirely subjective of course, but no matter let’s overlook that blatant idiosyncrasy for now.
Regardless of the fallacies in their own argument, there is no substantiation behind it. For one, they base their theory on the lineage of Alexander the Great. This is preposterous, for at the time his father was Phillip, King of Macedonia (not of Greece, mind you), and his mother was a Greek whore that his father took for himself. Furthermore, Alexander was crowned as King of Macedonia, at which point he promptly invaded and took over Greece. Now then, why would someone invade their own country? Precisely, they wouldn’t. Thus, argument 1 is negated: Alexander the Great was Macedonian. Second, the theory that he spread “the Greek culture” is more ridiculous than the first argument. There is about as much a distinct “Greek culture” as there is a distinct “Columbian culture” or a “Zimbabwean culture”. It was a Mediterranean way of life that everyone in the region enjoyed, not just the self righteous Greeks, who persistently call the lifestyle “Greek”. It was representative of all the Balkans, and by that token Alexander the Great did not spread “Greek culture”, but rather Mediterranean culture.
Lastly, and most obtuse, is the argument that the land that FYROM occupies is really part of Greece. Well, what evidence is there for that argument? If it should be a part of Greece, then it most certainly would be. Land is acquired by working for it, not by complaining to the world community that some land should be yours. There is no divine mandate that dictates what lands belong to who. Did the lands in present day France always belong to the French? Or, did the lands of England always belong to British? Or even the lands of Germany, always to the Germans? No, of course not! There were disputes over those lands, and most often blood was spilt. They all belonged to a myriad of different tribes before any stability came about. Sorry Greeks, but this is a harsh world; Macedonia exists because, partially, your weakness and inability to control your own lands. Survival of the fittest as they call it; bitch and moan all you like but unless the hand of God comes down and grants Macedonia to Greece on a silver platter, the lands of Macedonia will forever more remain sovereign.
Now, to the man who insulted the people of Macedonian descent of being “pathetic slav retards”, I would like he himself to retort with at least half a sound of an argument as that which you see right here. Now, I am not often very outspoken, but I simply cannot stand to see such ignorance being blabbed about. There is a very fine line gents, between nationalism and bigotry. I trust you remember that. So, next time you would like to express your dogmatic complaints please follow some logical, coherent conventions if you please.
King of Macedonia + Greek Bitch= Macedonian Prince

by SlayerOfBigots November 12, 2007

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