1 definition by Loquetus
I found this clip within the "NY Times" and it seems that sanskrit would be the oldest derivative towards "Mankind." This is a partial clipping, not the full article...
Mr. Barzun has written "that the word 'man' has its roots in the Sanskrit 'manu,' which means human being," you note, continuing: "Its counterpart in Latin is 'homo.' Thus, he argues, the word 'man' has always had a double meaning -- both male human being and human being in general. . . .
It is true that the word "man" -- which appears to derive from the same Indo-European root as "mind" and thus originally meant thinking creature -- has long had the two meanings mentioned, both of which are attested for Sanskrit "manu."
Mr. Barzun has written "that the word 'man' has its roots in the Sanskrit 'manu,' which means human being," you note, continuing: "Its counterpart in Latin is 'homo.' Thus, he argues, the word 'man' has always had a double meaning -- both male human being and human being in general. . . .
It is true that the word "man" -- which appears to derive from the same Indo-European root as "mind" and thus originally meant thinking creature -- has long had the two meanings mentioned, both of which are attested for Sanskrit "manu."
by Loquetus May 18, 2008